Charles C. Ryrie. Dispensationalism. Moody Publishers, 2007. p. 168.
Regarding Acts 2-3, progressives argue that, since Peter states that Jesus was exalted to the right hand of the Father and since Jesus is the ultimate heir to the Davidic throne, He must now be reigning as the Davidic king in fulfillment of the Davidic covenant (the right hand of the Father being the throne of David in Heaven). However, Bock acknowledges that the key texts only "allude to" or are "not clear" or are a pictorial description" eight times in his discussion of Acts 2. Bock clearly states that Psalm 132:11 (quoted in Acts 2:30) is "the crucial linking allusion" and "strongly Israelitish and national in tone."
Actually, what Peter is arguing for is the identification of Jesus of Nazareth as the Davidic king, since Jesus, not David, was raised from the dead and exalted to the right hand of the Father. He does not add that He is reigning as the Davidic king. That will happen in the future millennial kingdom. If it is so clear that our Lord is reigning now as the Davidic king in inaugural fulfillment of the Davidic covenant, why is that only alluded to in Acts 2? Links and similarities between reigns do not make clear an equality between the Davidic reign and Christ's present rule.
Editor's comment: Ryrie's comment reveals he is blind to the meaning of Peter's statement in Acts 2:36 that God has made Jesus "both Lord and Christ." By saying Jesus was "made Christ" Peter obviously meant that Jesus now reigns as king of the Jews, and so he fulfills all the prophecies of the O.T. pertaining to a king who will reign forever in the throne of David.
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